Prior to our meeting, my fiance had purchased a home with a friend of his.

Prior to our meeting, my fiance had purchased a home with a friend of his. Since then, he has been out of a stable job for months and decided to move in with me because he could not afford for his home. His friend still lives in the home and has since gotten a new roommate, but still expects my fiance to pay even though he is not living there and does not have the money. His friend really wants to keep the house but also owns another home and probably cannot afford to refinance. My fiance and I are getting married soon, so there’s no way he and I could live in the home with his friend too. Is there any way this can be fixed? Can my fiance try to force sell the home? He did consider signing a quit claim deed, but fears that if he signs over his rights, the friend has no incentive to refinance to get his name off the actual mortgage. Also, is there anything legally the friend can do to my fiance because he can’t pay? This is such a mess! Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

”Quit Claim Deed over 13 months ago” In–name removed–lawsuit that lasted…

”Quit Claim Deed over 13 months ago”
In–name removed–lawsuit that lasted over 3 years,–name removed–lis pendens was put upon–name removed–house which was then under the names of the parents and their only child – age 47 (who was in the civil lawsuit) After opposing counsel listed the lis pendens,–name removed–quit claim was done and the daughters name removed. The lawsuit continued and ended with an order for the daughter to pay opposing counsel fees and ex husband.

Daughter is now trying go bankrupt for all monies owed in the lawsuit. Does this constitute fraud? She lives in the house,they have owned and sold homes in the past always with all three names on the deed. They are not American citizens and the daughter has–name removed–green card.

Is this not fraudulent? Can they not put–name removed–lien against the house to get payment?

How can–name removed–European w–name removed–green card be allowed to go bankrupt when they haven’t contributed anything in the US?
Thank you.

I have a corrective quit claim deed.

I have a corrective quit claim deed. The original quit claim deed was a tenancy by the entireties but it need not included witnesses. The corrective Quitclaim deed filed does not state tenancy by the entireties instead it reads that the Grantor for and in consideration of the sum of ten dollard and other goods and valuable consideration to grantor in hand paid by grantees, the reciept whereof is hereby acknowleded has granted, bargained and quitclaim to the said grantees and grantees heirs, successors and assigns forever the following described land situate, lying in and being in the county of My questions is does the corrective quitclaim deed grant possession to the grantee and if so does the corrective quitclaim deed wipe out the original quitclaim deed?